Col 2:14 What is Paul referring to here?
Col 2:14 What is Paul referring to here?
Paul is referring to the Old Testament law here with all its decrees that worked against those who were under it, being abolished in Christ's death (CP Ro 4:15; 5:20; 1Cor 15:56; Ga 3:23).
Everyone under the old covenant was guilty before God, but as the fulfilment of the law, Christ took away that guilt (CP Ro 8:1-4; 10:4; 2Cor 3:6-11; Ga 3:19-25; 4:21-31; Eph 2:13-22; He 7:12, 18-25; 8:6-13; 9:11-15; 10:1-10).
These scriptures all teach that the entire Old Testament law was abolished in Christ, yet a great many Christians are blind to this fact.
They argue that only the ceremonial law was done away with, not the moral law. What they also do not understand is that the old covenant was for Israel only, whereas the new covenant is for all people - Jews and Gentiles alike (CP Ex 31:12-18 and Eze 20:9-13 with Hos 2:23; Ro 2:14; 9:22-26).
Many Christians also use Mt 5:17-18 to support their claim that the old covenant has not been abolished (CP Mt 5:17-18).
Those who use this scripture to argue that Jesus did not abolish the law do not realize that the purpose of the law was fulfilled in Christ and is therefore no longer in force (CP Ro 10:4-7; Ga 3:19, 24-25; Col 2:15-17).
See also comments on Ro 10:4, 2Cor 3:6, 3:12-16, Ga 4:21-31, Eph 2:15-16(A), He 8:6, and author's study The Old Covenant - Fulfilled in Christ and Completely Abolished in his book Advanced Studies in the Christian Faith (Volume 1).