3:6-9 Does this not contradict what John teaches elsewhere in scripture?
3:6-9 Does this not contradict what John teaches elsewhere in scripture?
No, the literal meaning in the Greek construction of this verse is that Christians do not continually, habitually sin. If John was teaching here that Christians do not sin at all he would be contradicting what he Himself teaches in 1Jn 3:1,8-10, 2:1 (cp 1Jn 1:8-10; 2:1).
Christians sin, but they do not live lives of habitual sin (cp Ro 6:1-23). Paul stresses the fact in Ro 6 that true believers are identified by their death to habitual sin. They sin spontaneously, but not habitually. When believers surrender their lives to Christ they are born again spiritually and the power of sin over their lives is broken. Through Christ God's resurrection power flows in them, and thus Christians are able to live holy, righteous lives (cp Ro 8:1-4).
This is what John means when he says in 1 Jn 5:18 (KJV), that believers keep themselves from the temptations and snares of the devil (cp 1Jn 5:18).
Most modern versions of the bible translate this verse to read that he that is begotten of God is Jesus, and it is He who keeps believers from the temptation and snares of the devil. Believers can choose for themselves which translation they use. Both versions are taught in scripture (cp Jn 17:11-15 with Jude 20-21).
See also comments on Ro 6:1, 3-5, 6-11, 12-14, 15,16, 17-20, 21-23, 7:7-23, 8:1-2.