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1:2 Does the phrase "elect according to the foreknowledge of God the Father" here teach as some claim that God predestines salvation for those he chooses?

1:2 Does the phrase "elect according to the foreknowledge of God the Father" here teach as some claim that God predestines salvation for those he chooses?

No! This is not teaching that at all.

The foreknowledge of God the Father here simply means that God saw ahead that he would have to send a Saviour to redeem mankind from Adam's fall, and He predetermined a plan for man's redemption and the Saviour through whom it would be accomplished - the Lord Jesus Christ (cp Gen 3:15; Psa 22; Isa 7:14; 9:6-7; 49:1-8; 50:2-11; 52:13 - 53:12; Zech 13:6; Mt 1:18-25; Lk 1:26-35; 68-75; 2:34-35; Jn 1:29; Ro 1:1-4; 16:25-27; Ga 4:4-5; He 10:1-10; Rev 13:8).

Rev 13:8 does not teach that the names of those whom God has predestined to salvation have been written in the Book of Life from the foundation of the world, as those who espouse this view claim.

Rev 13:8 teaches that it was the atoning death of Christ for the redemption of mankind that God predestined from the foundation of the world, as all those scriptures teach.

The elect according to the foreknowledge of God the Father, are all those who choose Jesus as their Saviour in obedience to God's plan of redemption for the human race through Christ's death and resurrection (cp 1 Pe 1:3-12, 18-20 with Jn 3:14-17; Ro 3:21-26; Eph 1:3-13; 2:4-10; 3:1-12; 2 Th 2:13-14; Tit 1:1-3; 2:11-14; He 2:9-14).

For a more detailed study on this subject see also comments on Mt 13:10-11, 20:16, Jn 3:36, 6:37, 12:37-40, Ac 13:48, 28:23-29, Ro 8:28-30, 9:7, 9:10-13, 9:14-18, 9:19-21, 11:2, Eph 1:3-6, 1 Jn 2:2.

1:5, 9-10 For study on whether salvation is past, present or future see comments on

1 Cor 1:18.

1:6-7 For study on believers rejoicing in suffering see comments on

Jas 1:2-4.

1 Peter