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Difference between revisions of "9:1-8 What was the point of Jesus' question, "which is easier to say, thy sins are forgiven thee, or arise, take up thy bed and walk"?"

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'''9:1-8 What was the point of Jesus’ question, “which is easier to say, thy sins are forgiven thee, or arise, take up thy bed and walk”?'''
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===9:1-8 What was the point of Jesus’ question, “which is easier to say, thy sins are forgiven thee, or arise, take up thy bed and walk”?===
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(cp also Mk 2:1-12; Lk 5:17-26) Jesus asked this question when He perceived that the scribes were reasoning in themselves what authority He had to forgive sins, which only God could do, so to prove that He was empowered to grant both forgiveness of the man’s sins and heal his body, Jesus healed him. The man’s healing authenticated Jesus’ right to forgive His sins. But there is another teaching here as well, and that is that bodily healing and forgiveness of sins go hand in hand – they are mutually inclusive benefits in Christ’s atoning death (cp Isa 53:4-5). Every time Jesus contemporaneously healed someone and forgave their sins He was demonstrating that bodily healing is an integral part of the atonement (cp Mt 9:22; Mk 10:46-52; Lk 17:13-19; Jn 4:46-53). Sadly though, a great many Christians in the contemporary church do not believe there is bodily healing in the atonement – only salvation, and as a result cannot receive healing for their bodies. They believe that Isa 53:4-5 and1Pe 2:24 only refers to spiritual healing, and that physical healing is not included, but if that were so, not only are those scriptures meaningless, but so is Ga 3:13 (cp Ga 3:13). This very clearly teaches that Christ died for our sicknesses as well as our sins. The curse that Jesus died to redeem us from includes every sickness and disease imaginable (cp Deut 28:15, 22, 27-28, 35, 58-61). Jesus’ atoning death was not only for Christians to be contemporaneously forgiven and healed in Bible times, but throughout every dispensation since then too, until He comes again. This is the ongoing ministry of the church (cp Jas 5:14-16).
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(cp also Mk 2:1-12; Lk 5:17-26) Jesus asked this question when He perceived that the scribes were reasoning in themselves what authority He had to forgive sins, which only God could do, so to prove that He was empowered to grant both forgiveness of the man’s sins and heal his body, Jesus healed him.  
  
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'''<div id="9:14-15 Who is the bridegroom Jesus refers to here?"> 9:14-15 Who is the bridegroom Jesus refers to here?<div>'''
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The man’s healing authenticated Jesus’ right to forgive His sins. But there is another teaching here as well, and that is that bodily healing and forgiveness of sins go hand in hand – they are mutually inclusive benefits in Christ’s atoning death (cp Isa 53:4-5).  
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This passage of scripture refers to any bridegroom (cp also Mk 2:18-20; Lk 5:33-35). Jesus simply used the analogy of a wedding party to answer John’s disciples’ questions as to why Jesus’ disciples did not fast as they and the Pharisees’ disciples did. Jesus’ point was that as long as He was with the disciples, like the bridegroom with his friends, there was too much joy for fasting. Fasting in the Old Testament was always associated with mourning or times of great spiritual need. This did not befit a marriage scene, where much festivity took place (cp Lev 16:29-31; 2Sam 12:15-23).
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'''<div id="9:16-17 What does Jesus mean by, “no man putteth a new cloth into an old garment...nor new wine in old bottles”?"> 9:16-17 What does Jesus mean by, “no man putteth a new cloth into an old garment...nor new wine in old bottles”?<div>'''
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Every time Jesus contemporaneously healed someone and forgave their sins He was demonstrating that bodily healing is an integral part of the atonement (cp Mt 9:22; Mk 10:46-52; Lk 17:13-19; Jn 4:46-53). Sadly though, a great many Christians in the contemporary church do not believe there is bodily healing in the atonement – only salvation, and as a result cannot receive healing for their bodies.  
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This is called the parable of old and new cloth, and wineskins. (The bottles Jesus refers to are wineskins.) This parable is also found in Mk 2:21-22 and Lu 5:36-39. Jesus told the parable in response to questioning by John the Baptist’s disciples as to why Jesus’ disciples did not follow the accepted religious practice of fasting (cp Mt 9:14-15). The old worn-out garment and wineskin represents the Old Testament Judaistic religious system which kept people under its law in bondage to sin (cp Ro 7:14-23; 1Cor 15:56-57). Jesus’ reference to new cloth and new wine was a way of saying that He did not come as a reformer to patch up an old worn-out religious system, but to replace it completely with a dynamic new teaching (cp Lk 4:17-21; Ga 3:22-26). Jesus’ dynamic new teaching was salvation by grace through faith in Him, which was incompatible with the teaching of the law under the Old Testament. This new teaching could not be mixed with the old because of the new life and freedom impossible with the old (cp Ro 7:24-8:4). A good biblical example of how the old and the new could not be mixed is found in Ac 15 (cp Acts 15:1-29). See also comments on Ac 15:1-29; 2Cor 3:6, 3:12-16
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'''<div id="9:23-24 What did Jesus mean when He said, “The maid is not dead, but sleeping”?"> 9:23-24 What did Jesus mean when He said, “The maid is not dead, but sleeping”?<div>'''
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They believe that Isa 53:4-5 and1Pe 2:24 only refers to spiritual healing, and that physical healing is not included, but if that were so, not only are those scriptures meaningless, but so is Ga 3:13 (cp Ga 3:13). This very clearly teaches that Christ died for our sicknesses as well as our sins. The curse that Jesus died to redeem us from includes every sickness and disease imaginable (cp Deut 28:15, 22, 27-28, 35, 58-61).
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(cp Mt 9:18-19) This event is also recorded in Mk 5:21-24, 35-43 and Lk 8:40-42, 49-56. Jesus was not denying that the girl was actually dead. He was simply comparing her dead condition to sleep, because her death, like sleep, as far as Jesus was concerned, was only temporary. He would raise her up from it (cp V25). Jesus also said Lazarus was only sleeping too before He raised him up from the dead (cp Jn 11:1-4, 11-15, 20-26, 32-44). In both these instances Jesus proved that He had power over death, and many came to believe on Him as a result (cp Mt 9:26; Jn 11:45). See also comments on Jn 11:33 and Ac 7:60.  
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'''<div id="9:27-30 See comments on Mt 8:1-4."> 9:27-30 See comments on Mt 8:1-4.<div>'''
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Jesus’ atoning death was not only for Christians to be contemporaneously forgiven and healed in Bible times, but throughout every dispensation since then too, until He comes again. This is the ongoing ministry of the church (cp Jas 5:14-16).
  
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'''<div id="9:32-34 What was the sin of the Pharisees here in what they said?"> 9:32-34 What was the sin of the Pharisees here in what they said?<div>'''
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''Back to [[Matthew Study]]''
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(cp also Lk 11:14-15). The Pharisees attributed the miracle of the demon being cast out of the dumb man by Jesus, enabling him to speak, to Satan, thus blaspheming the Holy Spirit, to whom they should have ascribed the miracle. This is the only sin in God’s order for which there is no forgiveness (cp Mt 12:31-32; Mk 3:22-30; Lk 12:10). See also comments on Mt 12:31-32
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'''Back to [[Matthew Study]]'''
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Revision as of 23:13, 3 January 2019

9:1-8 What was the point of Jesus’ question, “which is easier to say, thy sins are forgiven thee, or arise, take up thy bed and walk”?

(cp also Mk 2:1-12; Lk 5:17-26) Jesus asked this question when He perceived that the scribes were reasoning in themselves what authority He had to forgive sins, which only God could do, so to prove that He was empowered to grant both forgiveness of the man’s sins and heal his body, Jesus healed him.

The man’s healing authenticated Jesus’ right to forgive His sins. But there is another teaching here as well, and that is that bodily healing and forgiveness of sins go hand in hand – they are mutually inclusive benefits in Christ’s atoning death (cp Isa 53:4-5).

Every time Jesus contemporaneously healed someone and forgave their sins He was demonstrating that bodily healing is an integral part of the atonement (cp Mt 9:22; Mk 10:46-52; Lk 17:13-19; Jn 4:46-53). Sadly though, a great many Christians in the contemporary church do not believe there is bodily healing in the atonement – only salvation, and as a result cannot receive healing for their bodies.

They believe that Isa 53:4-5 and1Pe 2:24 only refers to spiritual healing, and that physical healing is not included, but if that were so, not only are those scriptures meaningless, but so is Ga 3:13 (cp Ga 3:13). This very clearly teaches that Christ died for our sicknesses as well as our sins. The curse that Jesus died to redeem us from includes every sickness and disease imaginable (cp Deut 28:15, 22, 27-28, 35, 58-61). 

Jesus’ atoning death was not only for Christians to be contemporaneously forgiven and healed in Bible times, but throughout every dispensation since then too, until He comes again. This is the ongoing ministry of the church (cp Jas 5:14-16).

Back to Matthew Study

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