View source for 2:1-3 What does the "falling away" refer to here which must occur before Antichrist is revealed?

====2:1-3 What does the "falling away" refer to here which must occur before Antichrist is revealed?====
Most bible commentators teach that the falling away here refers to the church going into apostasy before Antichrist will be revealed. Yet the word apostasia, from which the term is derived, is only found in one other place in scripture and there it is translated "forsake", which involves a departure (CP Ac 21:21). 

The predominant meaning of the root verb aphistemi, which is found fifteen times in scripture, is that of a person departing from someone or something. It means to cause to withdraw, to go away, depart, withdraw from (CP Lu 2:37; 4:13; 13:27; Ac 5:37-38; 12:10; 15:38; 19:9; 22:29; 2Cor 12:8; 1Ti 6:5; 2 Ti 2:19). 

Aphistemi is only used in the context of departing from the faith three times (CP Lu 8:13; 1Ti 4:1; He 3:12). The very fact that the qualifying words "from the faith" are added in 1Ti 4:1, shows that in itself aphistemi does not have the idea of a defection from the truth. Also the neuter noun apostasion, is translated "divorcement", which also implies a separation or departure of one person from another (CP Mt 5:31; 19:7; Mk 10:4).

It is interesting to note that the Greek word translated "fall away" in He 6:6 is not apostasia, as in 2Th 2:1-3, but parapipto (CP He 6:4-6). Parapipto means to err, stray, lapse, fall away. 

Surely, if God had meant 2Th 2:1-3 to refer to a falling away (from the faith) He would have used parapipto instead of apostasia to avoid confusion. (See comments on He 6:4-6)

Furthermore, it must be ascertained from the context in which words are used in scripture as to what they refer. In a context where true and false doctrines are in view apostasia would certainly mean falling away from true doctrine, but that is not in view in 2Th 2:1-3. V1 clearly refers to the coming of Christ to catch away, or "rapture" the church to heaven (CP V1). 

The main theme in both 1 and 2 Thessalonians is the rapture of the church. Thus it is reasonable to conclude that Paul has not used apostasia here to signify the church falling away from the faith as it has been interpreted, but to refer to the departure or rapture of the church from the earth which he had told the Thessalonians about when he was with them, and had also described in his previous letter (CP 2Th 2:1-8; 1Th 4:13 - 5:11). See also comments on 2Th 1:7-10.

It is the church that is holding back the revelation of Antichrist "... for that day shall not come, except there come a falling away first, and that man be revealed ... and now you know what withholdeth, that he might be revealed in his time ... only he who now letteth (restrains), will let (restrain), until he be taken out of the way ... and then shall that wicked be revealed". 

The church must be raptured before Antichrist is revealed. The rapture is the blessed hope of the church (CP Tit 2:11--14). For a more detailed study on this subject see comments on Lu 21:36; Jn 5:28-29, 14:1-3; 1Cor 15:51-58; Php 3:20-21; 1Th 4:13-18; 2Th 2:6-8; 2Ti 2:18; Rev 1:19, 3:7-13.

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